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This exercise has to be carried out in three months Thus, one can say have you ever had a car? where have indicates perfection and had is being used is the possessive sense There is a deadline with no exceptions
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This exercise should be carried out in three months Have is the 1st form of verb There is reason to believe this will be completed
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This exercise was to be carried out in three months
This is no longer neccessary to complete. It is ungrammatical to use 'has' in questions that begin with 'do' or 'does' In these types of questions the verb 'do' is conjugated based on whether the noun is first, second or third person (eg do i, do you or , does he). We think the sentence she has a book is equivalent to she does have a book
This is where the negative comes from Do and its derived form does are auxiliary verbs used for framing assertive and interrogative sentences And auxiliary verbs are followed by the raw forms of the verbs, in this case 'have' 'has' is not the raw or primary verb.
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As a commenter has mentioned, there are also echo questions, where the who question can easily use a plural verb
That gorgeous blonde girl that just moved in across the street, and the redhead that you're too shy to talk to, and also that girl who's always trying to beat you up on the playground, they. Tea is come or tea has come Lunch is ready or lunch has ready He is come back or he has come back
She is assigned for work or she has assigned for work Actually these were the sentences that i came across in the last few days, and everybody uses 'is' but i think 'has' is correct, so i'm just confused about how to differentiate 'is' and 'has'. The restrictive clause that follows (. With at least one university) has no bearing on the grammatical number of the subject
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When, as in this case, a restrictive clause contains an element with a different grammatical number than the main subject, the result may sound strange to some ears.
Does anyone has/have a black pen What is the correct form of verb which should be used here I understand that for anyone, it should be has, as in Has anyone got a black pen
But my doubt here is because of the auxilliary does in the question Will that cause any change to the choice of has/have? So you never should say have (been) ran or has (been) ran, it's always have (been) run or has (been) run That being said you will hear native speakers get it wrong all the time, especially when the speaker wants to emphasize has run.
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This is why we say she play s but she doe s play (no s on play in this latter case
The word doe s already does this job, there's no need to duplicate). The words 'has' and 'have' are used as a main verb and auxiliary verb in the present tense In either case, has is used for the third person singular As for have, it's used for the third person plural and the first and second persons, singular and plural
Examples as a main verb He/she has a big house Mr smith has no car When 'will' is used as modal , it is followed by the 1st form of verb
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When 'will' is used as noun both 'have and has' can be used
His will has power over everything (as noun) He will have to go islampur (as modal verb) Since, 'has' is not the 1st form of verb so, in place of this we have to use 'have'
